I really am confused by this one.

So, it seems that villains who lack a moral agency cannot be considered Purely Evil. But... I kinda fail to see why it is a mitigating factor. In case you do not know what a moral agency is, it is when someone understands what right and wrong are and how they work. Those who are amoral lack a moral agency.

Now, I am confused; why does a pure evil villain need to have a moral agency? I fail to see how being amoral is a mitigating factor. Literally, they just don't understand right and wrong. Can someone explain to me why pure evil villains cannot be amoral? I am really confused.